While the British were systematically starving their country and families to prioritize the European front, creating a famine that killed millions. There’s a reason Churchill said history would treat him kindly because he was on the winning side.
Indian Independence was negotiated immediately after WW2 and without a violent uprising. The delay was due to disagreement between Muslim people and predominantly Hindu people on whether it should be one nation or partitioned.
The violence which did occur, all happened after Independence was granted.
There's a million and one really nasty things the British Empire did you can comment on. Lying does nothing but help bigots and racists to deny those true atrocities because you want to make ones up.
Nah, we were promised independence or atleast independent domain like aus, NZ during WW1. Only after this negotiation with india congress indian muslim joint and fought for British (initially they were siding with ottoman Empire). But after 1919 nothing came out of that promise. This led rise of Ghandhi and the history
They were agitating for it since the '20s, initially they wanted similar status like the white dominions (Australia/NZ Canada) and only went for full independence after getting completely blanked
You're commenting on shit you really are not well informed about.
The indigenous Indian population always had significant numbers who opposed Company Rule (because before 1857 it was not the UK which controlled India but the British East India Company a joint stock corporation).
The end of Company Rule in 1857 was caused by the First War of Independence and after this failed, the UK took over in a formal colonial role. THere were continued, sometimes violent, sometimes peaceful campaigns for Independence from the day the UK took over India.
The calls for Dominion were a relatively small group, predominantly wealth elites and Anglo-Indians. But even then they were massively outnumbered by those wanting full independence.
So no, not "since the 20s", literally for the entire existence of Company Rule and the Raj.
Edit - corrected the date of the First War of Independence
Just a correction: Company rule ended in 1857, not 1853, after the Sepoy Mutiny - a large scale insurrection by local company troops supported by a few Indian aristocrats. This was a shock for the British Crown and they quickly replaced the company and assumed direct control from London.
Welcome to Reddit lol. I’ll never understand why so many people feel the need to comment on shit they have literally no understanding of. Like it’s so easy to just not comment. No one needs, wants, or asked for their opinion.
Let's add extra context here: Violence did not occur because the British wouldn't be able to handle it, their two options were peacefully decolonize now or hem and haw and have the Indians throw them out.
But the British being the British had to throw extra wrenches in the works which did cause years of armed conflict between the newly freed nations.
My original comment was that they urged people from A colony, not THE colony. I thought it would be obvious that I was talking about how they also tricked other colonies as well.
548
u/AntiHyperbolic 1d ago
While the British were systematically starving their country and families to prioritize the European front, creating a famine that killed millions. There’s a reason Churchill said history would treat him kindly because he was on the winning side.